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Jacob's Family Tomb: A Contradiction in the Bible?

Posted by faithfirstmedia on November 7, 2009 at 10:47 AM

Jacob's Family Tomb: A Contradiction in the Bible?

by Matthew Elton

copyright 2009 Matthew Elton

 

 

 

Question:

In Acts 7,15-16 Stephen tells us this:

 

 

"Then Jacob went down to Egypt, where he and our fathers died. Their bodieswere brought back to Shechem and placed in the tomb that Abraham hadbought from the sons of Hamor at Shechem for a certain sum of money."

 

Let's see. We are told: Abraham bought a tomb in Shechem from the sons of Hamor.

 

Stephen is talking about something that happened a long time ago. But let's see which story he actually means:

 

Genesis 23,17-20:

 

"So Ephron's field in Machpelah near Mamre--both the field and the cave init, and all the trees within the borders of the field--was deeded toAbraham as his property.

Afterward Abraham buried his wifeSarah in the cave in the field of Machpelah near Mamre (which is atHebron) in the land of Canaan...

 

So the field and the cave in it were deeded to Abraham by the Hittites as a "burial place."

 

Aswe see, Abraham didn't buy a tomb in Shechem from the sons of Hamor buthe bought it in Machpelah, near Mamre, from Ephron the Hittite. Jacobwasn't burried in Shechem like it is said in Acts 7. He was burried in Machpelah:


Genesis 49,1-33:

 

"Then Jacob called for his sons and said:...

..."I am about to be gathered to my people. Bury me with my fathers in thecave in the field of Ephron the Hittite, the cave in the field ofMachpelah, near Mamre in Canaan, which Abraham bought as a burial placefrom Ephron the Hittite, along with the field. There Abraham and hiswife Sarah were buried, there Isaac and his wife Rebekah were buried,and there I buried Leah. The field and the cave in it were bought fromthe Hittites.  When Jacob had finished giving instructions to his sons,he drew his feet up into the bed, breathed his last and was gathered to his people."

 

Why does Stephen say Jakob [sic] was burried [sic] in Shechem in a tomb which was bought from the sonsof Hamor? The story was mixed up with this one here:

 

Genesis 33,18-19:                                

 

"After Jacob came from Paddan Aram, he arrived safely at the city of Shechem ...

Fora hundred pieces of silver, he bought from the sons of Hamor, thefather of Shechem, the plot of ground where he pitched his tent."

 

In Acts 7 it is said that Abraham bought a tomb in Shechem from the sonsof Hamor but that is wrong. Abraham bought it in Machpelah (near byMamre, at Hebron) from Ephron the Hettite. Furthermore, we are toldthat Jacob was burried [sic] in Shechem but that is not correct. Jacobwas burried [sic] in the family tomb in Machpelah. About 63 milesbeeline lie between Machpelah (at Hebron) and Shechem. Both places arein the maps lying to the Bible.

 

Answer:

This alleged “contradiction” does not justify the dismissal of the Bible as false, since there are several very likely possibilities which clearly explain this apparent ambiguity.


Perhaps Jacob was buried Shechem, and later re-buried in the grave of Abraham. This is possible, but unlikely in light of the “Jewish tradition” cited by the PNT commentary, and Jerome’s claim that they still had their tombs. Another possibility is that Jacob was buried in two places at once. Again, this seems unlikely, but it is possible. Even today it is not uncommon to have empty tombs, tombs that contain only part of a body, or ceremonial tombstones with no body buried underneath.


However, the most likely explanation is simply that Jacob and “our fathers” were buried in two different tombs, just as the Bible describes. In other words, when Stephen says “he and our fathers died. Their bodies were brought back to Shechem” the ambiguous “their” could refer only to “our fathers” but not to Jacob, who was buried at Machpelah, as the book of Genesis states. This is almost certainly what Stephen meant, otherwise the Sanhedrin (who were very well-versed in Jewish history) would have corrected him.

Although it is unlikely (although possible) for one person to be buried in two different tombs, it is very likely that different family members will be buried in different tombs. Even though Jewish tradition favors burying family members in the same tomb, we must remember that the record covers generations of people who were migrating, at a time very early in Jewish history, before most established traditions.


Simply put, Stephen was speaking quickly to an audience who already knew the details of the story, so there was no need for Stephen to go into any great depth. We must remember that Stephen was speaking to the members of the Jewish council, who were already very well educated in Jewish history. Stephen was not telling them anything they don’t already know! He was simply reminding them of events in Jewish history.


that were already very well known to any Jew, but especially to those who were as well- versed in the Hebrew scriptures as the Sanhedrin. Stephen described the burial of Jacob and his fathers. The Sanhedrin (the most well-educated theologians of Stephen’s day) did not correct him on this point. They saw no contradiction between Stephen’s speech and the Hebrew scriptures.


In a mere fifty verses, Stephen summarized all of Jewish history from Abaraham to Jesus - a period of millenia. Because the council members were already well educated in Jewish history, there was no need for Stephen to go into any great depth elaborating on his meaning. He was simply reminding the council of things that were well understood by both parties. No one was confused, because it was apparent to any well-versed Jew that Stephen was speaking of two tombs - both the tomb purchased by Jacob of Shechem, and the cave that Abraham bought. Luke faithfully transcribed the actual dialogue word-for-word.


All of the Greek manuscripts agree as to the actual text, so preservation is not the question here. The purpose of this exchange was not to repeat every detail already recorded in the law and the prophets. Stephen’s exchange presumes intimate knowledge of the Hebrew scriptures - knowledge, I might add, that most Bible skeptics do not have. Who are we to claim that our understanding the Hebrew scriptures is superior to that of the Sanhedrin, or Stephen himself, who’s incredible knowledge of the Old Testament is demonstrated is his recalculation of the “70 souls of the house of Jacob” into “75 souls” with the addition of “Joseph... and all his kindred” which Stephen knew included five members who were not of the house of Jacob - a fact that only the most well-educated theological scholar would know.


In conclusion, Acts records the exact words that Stephen spoke to the Sanhedrin. The books of Genesis and Joshua record information on the sale of both of the tombs referenced by Stephen in his speech. There is no biblical contradiction if we understand that Stephen was speaking of multiple tombs in which multiple individuals (“he and our fathers” to quote the text) were buried.

Categories: Bible 'Contradictions'

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1 Comment

Reply Tim
10:49 AM on May 21, 2010 
Interesting answer. I am a Christian. I believe in Jesus Christ as my only way to salvation. I used to believe in Bible inerrancy as well, but have come to believe that this is actually not a necessary tenant of my faith. I believe man misapplies and misunderstands certain verses in the Bible that supposedly point to the necessary inerrancy of scripture.
The problems I see with your answer here:
If the only scripture we had (as the sole authoritative source) for where Jacob was buried was the verse in Acts, where would Bible teachers teach that Jacob was buried? Or, if the only one available was in Genesis, would we even question where Jacob was buried? The only reason why we question the verses and have to come up with circumstantial explanations is that the two verses do apparently conflict. Explaining that someone else standing there may have been able to understand what he was talking about (although you do not know if anyone there did or did not argue with him, as I could just as easily argue that their argument was simply not recorded) does not hold up as proof for inerrancy. Although no one can prove that this was not Stephen's intention (which it may have been), that is simply not the question here. The question is whether or not the Bible itself is inerrant. In this case, the evidence supports far more heavily the position that here the scripture contradicts ITSELF, but not necessarily Stephen.
Christianity's belief that scripture is inerrant to me more supports man's fantasy of having the corner on what's right. But we know that we have so many Christian denominations which constantly contradict one another, while claiming to know for sure the true interpretation of scripture. How can we worry about whether or not it is all true, when we are incapable of agreeing 100% on what is true anyway. That is why Bible inerrancy is irrelevant, because even if it were all 100% exact, we still could not discover it. That does not change anything about the truth of Jesus Christ one iota. I can know my need for Jesus as my Savior, and the need forgiveness, and indeed do, without the Bible. In fact, in spite of the Bible. Don't get me wrong. I believe that Scripture is divinely inspired and God breathed, however, it is passed down and recorded by men, who are very fallible. Do you believe that men in the 4th century had any more of the Holy Spirit than you or I do today? If so, why? But if no, then my question is though we have the Holy Spirit, we still today cannot agree on many things we consider crucial to our faith (i.e. those that accuse holy rollers of being demon possessed, or holy rollers who think that the only way to live a true Christian life is to be baptized in the Holy Spirit, therefore implying that others may not actually be saved), so how can we expect mortal men of around the 4th century A.D. (who decided which books should be canonized and which should not) to be any more adept at hearing the Holy Spirit speak to what was actually true scripture and what was not? Furthermore, we accept that the men in later councils were capable of hearing the Holy Spirit more than the earlier ones in order to take some of the original books of the canon out. Throughout history men have put books in and taken books out, so as to represent the true word of God. How can this be? Wasn't part of the basis for which books they chose whether or not they contained contradictions with other scriptures? Does this not show that it was simply a matter of Faith? Further, do you believe that Peter had a better ability to hear God on these matters? Was it not Peter who believed that God was racist and had to be corrected by Paul? And didn't Paul and Barnabus have a great falling out? Which of them was hearing the Holy Spirit in their argument? Were they not both great men of the faith? Or was Paul, who was admittedly, "chief of all sinners" greater? I believe the evidence says that men must have faith, not proof. And while scripture is there as a gift from God to guide us, did He ever really want us to rely on a book or a stone tablet, or was He really just using these to get us to rely on Him? By the way, I am not speaking of the book of Revelation, which does essentially claim to be perfect, and because of faith, and truthfully, fear of God, I do believe it is. I would like to hear your response. Please copy it to my email too so that I can be sure to get it.

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